A platonist/classical mathematician wants to quantify his...

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A platonist/classical mathematician wants to quantify his variables over numbers that cannot be applied in practice with the probability 1, just because he wants to say ‘for all numbers’. Why not quantify only for all those numbers that can be applied in theory? This way, the mathematician would no loose anything, but he would get rid of paradoxes.

Math (89)
Avril Styrman wrote on February 14, 2008

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